Posted: 23 June 2010 at 10:52am | IP Logged | 4
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To me the authorship debate is mostly a secondary concern, as the plays are not neither more not less depending on the author. But in terms of understanding the theatrical environment at the time, it would be an issue better settled. Though I have not yet watched every play, nor have I read more than a few snippets here and there about the "evidence" against "The Stratford Man", there were some things that I picked up on. Some writers seem to suggest that the comprehensive knowledge and understanding of every different "class" in Elizabethan England means he must have been a Nobleman. As I see it, it speaks more in favor of him being a commoner. "Upstairs" don't usually pay attention to what happens "downstairs", but "downstairs" know everything. Some sources seem to suggest he had power, authority or wealth outside the theater that necessitated a pseudonym, and I don't quite see that either. But I suppose it's possible. And for all the "debate" around the authorship question, the only thing anyone seems to agree on is that "The Stratford Man" could not possibly have been Shakespeare. As if there was something about him that made him "unworthy". That he was too common, too ordinary, just a working stiff doing a bit of acting, making some money writing, investing and running a theatre. More like a shopkeeper or accountant than "the most human human who ever lived " (to quote the Doctor) I suppose at some point I'll try reading the Ogburn book again or another of the "not the real Shakespeare" books. It's just the last time I was a bit turned off by him making a few leaps that didn't quite make sense to me. Though I'm hard pressed to remember them now. I suppose it is a valid question, I just don't see why the Stratford Man would be so unlikely, with there not really being any evidence for the others. At least his name was Shakespeare (or something close enough to it in a world that predates proper spelling).
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